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Fixed Income A: Instruments and Markets

Prepare for Fixed Income A: Instruments and Markets with CFA practice questions covering 9 topics. Part of CFA Level I — build your knowledge and track your progress with PopCFA.

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262
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What’s in it.

9 topics
  • Topic 01

    Fixed Income Securities Overview

    45 questions
  • Topic 02

    Bond Markets and Issuance

    36 questions
  • Topic 03

    Introduction to Bond Valuation

    28 questions
  • Topic 04

    Yield Measures and Conventions

    26 questions
  • Topic 05

    Spot Rates, Forward Rates, and the Yield Curve

    24 questions
  • Topic 06

    Securitisation and Structured Products

    30 questions
  • Topic 07

    Introduction to Credit Risk

    24 questions
  • Topic 08

    Embedded Options

    24 questions
  • Topic 09

    Floating Rate Notes and Inflation-Linked Bonds

    25 questions

Sample questions

3 of many

A few questions from this unit, with the answer and a full explanation. The complete bank is available when you start practising.

  1. Under the Liquidity Preference Theory, why does the yield curve slope upward even if future short-term rates are expected to remain constant?

    • Because long-term bonds are more liquid than short-term bonds due to their larger outstanding volume, demanding a liquidity premium
    • Because investors expect inflation to rise, which typically creates an upward-sloping yield curve in stable economic environments
    • Because the Pure Expectations Theory and the Liquidity Preference Theory predict the same yield curve shape; the upward slope reflects only inflation expectations
    • Because long-term bonds carry more price risk (duration risk) than short-term bonds; investors require a positive term (liquidity) premium to hold long-term bonds, pushing long-term rates above expected future short rates
      Correct answer
    Explanation

    The Liquidity Preference Theory (Keynes/Hicks) adds a term premium to the Pure Expectations Theory framework. Even if markets expect short-term rates to remain constant (implying a flat curve under Pure Expectations Theory), the yield curve slopes upward because:

    • Long-term bonds have higher duration and therefore greater price volatility when rates change.
    • Investors are risk-averse and demand a positive term premium to compensate for bearing this additional price risk over longer horizons.
    • This term premium increases monotonically with maturity, producing an upward-sloping curve even with flat rate expectations.

    The term premium explains why forward rates are consistently upward-biased predictors of future short-term rates.

  2. In a uniform-price Treasury auction, what is the 'stop-out price'?

    • The average of all bid prices received in the auction
    • The highest price bid by any single participant in the auction
    • The lowest accepted price (highest accepted yield) at which the entire issue is sold
      Correct answer
    • The price at which the Treasury stops accepting non-competitive bids
    Explanation

    The stop-out price (clearing price) is the lowest price accepted in a uniform-price auction — equivalently, the highest accepted yield. All bidders who submitted bids at or above this price (at or below this yield) are awarded bonds and all pay this single stop-out price, regardless of what they individually bid. This distinguishes the uniform-price format from a discriminatory (multiple-price) auction in which each winner pays their own bid price.

  3. What does it mean for an FRN when the discount margin exceeds the quoted margin?

    • It means the FRN's coupon is now above the market rate, so the bond appreciates in value above par
    • It means the FRN is trading at a premium because investors are willing to accept a lower spread than required, reflecting confidence in the issuer
    • It means the market requires more credit compensation than the coupon provides; the FRN must trade at a discount to par to make up the shortfall in spread through price appreciation
      Correct answer
    • It means the FRN will be called by the issuer because the discount margin trigger has been exceeded per the bond indenture
    Explanation

    When DM > QM:

    • The bond's fixed coupon of (Reference Rate + QM) is insufficient to meet the market's required return of (Reference Rate + DM)
    • To bridge the gap, the bond's price must fall below par so investors also earn a capital gain (from the discounted price back to par at maturity) that augments the insufficient coupon
    • The total return (coupon + capital appreciation) then equals the required DM

    This is the pricing mechanism that keeps FRN yields in line with market-required returns even when the fixed quoted margin no longer reflects current credit conditions. It is analogous to a fixed-rate bond trading at a discount when its coupon is below the prevailing market yield.