CFA·CFA-L1 · CFA Level I·UnitCFA-L1 · Unit 09Access: Premium
Fixed Income A: Instruments and Markets
Prepare for Fixed Income A: Instruments and Markets with CFA practice questions covering 9 topics. Part of CFA Level I — build your knowledge and track your progress with PopCFA.
What’s in it.
9 topics- Topic 01
Fixed Income Securities Overview
45 questions - Topic 02
Bond Markets and Issuance
36 questions - Topic 03
Introduction to Bond Valuation
28 questions - Topic 04
Yield Measures and Conventions
26 questions - Topic 05
Spot Rates, Forward Rates, and the Yield Curve
24 questions - Topic 06
Securitisation and Structured Products
30 questions - Topic 07
Introduction to Credit Risk
24 questions - Topic 08
Embedded Options
24 questions - Topic 09
Floating Rate Notes and Inflation-Linked Bonds
25 questions
Sample questions
3 of manyA few questions from this unit, with the answer and a full explanation. The complete bank is available when you start practising.
Under the Liquidity Preference Theory, why does the yield curve slope upward even if future short-term rates are expected to remain constant?
- Because long-term bonds are more liquid than short-term bonds due to their larger outstanding volume, demanding a liquidity premium
- Because investors expect inflation to rise, which typically creates an upward-sloping yield curve in stable economic environments
- Because the Pure Expectations Theory and the Liquidity Preference Theory predict the same yield curve shape; the upward slope reflects only inflation expectations
- Because long-term bonds carry more price risk (duration risk) than short-term bonds; investors require a positive term (liquidity) premium to hold long-term bonds, pushing long-term rates above expected future short ratesCorrect answer
ExplanationThe Liquidity Preference Theory (Keynes/Hicks) adds a term premium to the Pure Expectations Theory framework. Even if markets expect short-term rates to remain constant (implying a flat curve under Pure Expectations Theory), the yield curve slopes upward because:
- Long-term bonds have higher duration and therefore greater price volatility when rates change.
- Investors are risk-averse and demand a positive term premium to compensate for bearing this additional price risk over longer horizons.
- This term premium increases monotonically with maturity, producing an upward-sloping curve even with flat rate expectations.
The term premium explains why forward rates are consistently upward-biased predictors of future short-term rates.
In a uniform-price Treasury auction, what is the 'stop-out price'?
- The average of all bid prices received in the auction
- The highest price bid by any single participant in the auction
- The lowest accepted price (highest accepted yield) at which the entire issue is soldCorrect answer
- The price at which the Treasury stops accepting non-competitive bids
ExplanationThe stop-out price (clearing price) is the lowest price accepted in a uniform-price auction — equivalently, the highest accepted yield. All bidders who submitted bids at or above this price (at or below this yield) are awarded bonds and all pay this single stop-out price, regardless of what they individually bid. This distinguishes the uniform-price format from a discriminatory (multiple-price) auction in which each winner pays their own bid price.
What does it mean for an FRN when the discount margin exceeds the quoted margin?
- It means the FRN's coupon is now above the market rate, so the bond appreciates in value above par
- It means the FRN is trading at a premium because investors are willing to accept a lower spread than required, reflecting confidence in the issuer
- It means the market requires more credit compensation than the coupon provides; the FRN must trade at a discount to par to make up the shortfall in spread through price appreciationCorrect answer
- It means the FRN will be called by the issuer because the discount margin trigger has been exceeded per the bond indenture
ExplanationWhen DM > QM:
- The bond's fixed coupon of (Reference Rate + QM) is insufficient to meet the market's required return of (Reference Rate + DM)
- To bridge the gap, the bond's price must fall below par so investors also earn a capital gain (from the discounted price back to par at maturity) that augments the insufficient coupon
- The total return (coupon + capital appreciation) then equals the required DM
This is the pricing mechanism that keeps FRN yields in line with market-required returns even when the fixed quoted margin no longer reflects current credit conditions. It is analogous to a fixed-rate bond trading at a discount when its coupon is below the prevailing market yield.